Karl Fogel at
Could someone with expertise explain the legal reasoning behind the
arrest of Meng Wanzhou? When the U.S. declares sanctions against a
nation (Iran), does that mean that anyone in the world who doesn't obey
those sanctions is subject to extradition if they visit the wrong place?
Because, if so, i totally don't get that. Those sanctions are just a
U.S. law, right? How can someone in another country be guilty of
violating a U.S. law that doesn't apply in other countries? (Yes, I
realize this case is a power politics game, but legality still matters.)
I feel like there must be *some* legal angle to this that I'm just not
getting, because so far none of the news reports I've seen (hmm, all
U.S. media though) have commented on the jurisdictional question that I
would have thought would be foremost here. What am I missing?
we have extradition treaties with a number of countries (which is probably obvious, and not what you are asking, but since no one else has responded...), but I'm not familiar with the matter, and it's been a number of years since I took an international law course or read anything on the matter.
Canada I see. There may be UN sanctions against Iran.
I think you left out a "not"
I think you left out a "not"
While most of these sanctions are administered through the US Department of the Treasury, my employing bureau surprisingly has nothing to do with them.